Daily MCQs for Judiciary Prelims Exams - (14 March 2024)

Question/ Answer

Question1:- The Bill of Evidence Act was prepared by

(a) Fourth Law Commission
(b) Sir Henry Maine
(c) Sir James Stephen
(d) None of the above

Answer is C is correct. Sir James Stephen has prepared Bill of Evidence Act. Therefore option (c) is the correct answer.

Question2:- “A fact in personal knowledge of the judge cannot be taken in evidence”. In which case this had been held?

(a) Har Prasad v. Shiva Dayal, (1876) 31A 259
(b) Kashmira Singh v. State of M.P., 1952 ACR 536
(c) Virendra Kumar Ghosh v. Emperor, ILR (1910) 37 Cal 474
(d) Pushpa Devi Ramjatia v. M.L. Wadhwa, AIR 1987 SC 1748

Answer is A is correct. In Har Prasad v. Shiva Dayal the court held that a fact in personal knowledge of the judge cannot be taken in evidence. Therefore option (a) is the correct answer.

Question3:- Relevancy and admissibility under the Evidence Act are

(a) Synonymous
(b) Coextensive
(c) Neither synonymous nor coextensive
(d) None of the above

Answer is C is correct. Relevancy and admissibility are neither synonymous nor co-extensive to each other this was held in the case of Ram Bihari Yadav v. State of Bihar. Therefore option (c) is the correct answer.

Question4:- “Presumption of fact” under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872

(a) Is based on logic, human experience and natural events and law of nature
(b) Is based on provisions of law
(c) Cannot be ignored by the court
(d) Is of certain and uniform position

Answer is A is correct. Presumption of fact is based on login, human experience and natural events and law of nature. Therefore option (a) is the correct answer.

Question5:- Which of the following is correctly matched according to Indian Evidence Act, 1872

(a) Refreshing memory: Section 158
(b) Identification parade: Section 10
(c) Admission: Section 24
(d) None of the above

Answer is D is correct. Refreshing memory is dealt under Section 159, Identification parade under section 9 and Admission under Section 17 of the Act. Therefore option (d) is the correct answer.

Question6:- ‘A’ is accused of waging war against the Government of India by taking part in an armed insurrection in which property is destroyed at ‘X’, troops are attacked at ‘Y’ and goals are broken open in ‘Z’. ‘A’ was present at ‘X’ and ‘Y’ but not at ‘Z’.

(a) Occurrence at X and Y are relevant.
(b) Occurrence at X, Y and Z are relevant.
(c) Occurrence at X, Y and Z are not relevant.
(d) None of the above

Answer is B is correct. In the given facts occurrence at X, Y and Z are relevant as per Section 7 of the Act. Therefore option (b) is the correct answer.

Question7:- Point out the correct answer:
Law of Evidence is

(a) Lex Tellienis
(b) Lex Fori
(c) Lex Loci
(d) Lex Situs

Answer is B is correct. Law of Evidence is Lex Fori i.e. Law of the forum which means the evidence of the state will apply where the case is pending in the court and not of the state from where the parties belong to. Therefore option (b) is the correct answer.

MCQ 14 March 2024

Daily MCQs for Judiciary Prelims Exams - (14 March 2024)

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