Daily mains Question

Questions



Date
Question/ Answer
5 Dec 2023
Question :- Arbitrariness and equality are sworn enemies. Explain.

Answer:-
Arbitrariness is the unfair and unlimited use of personal power. Arbitrariness is an action that is done without reason or principle. It is done on the will of the person. Arbitrariness always comes along with unjust and unfair.

Equality is a cornerstone of Indian democracy. Equality is the rule of law in a republic. It means treating each individual equally without any biasness towards anyone. Equality always negates arbitrariness because the essence of equality lies in justice, equity and fairness.

In the case of EP Royappa v. State of Tamil Nadu (1974 SC) it was held that equality is antithetic to arbitrariness. Equality can never be seen in isolate rather it has to be seen with the other factors.

Prior to this case all the fundamental rights were seen in isolation. Article 14 provides with equality but it was limited to the rules of article 14 i.e. rule of law, reasonable classification etc. but after this judgement the principles of justice, liberty, equality, fairness were given a broader approach. It was held that all the fundamental right are like overarching principle as they are running across each other and cutting each other.

Therefore where there is equality then the arbitrariness does not have any place. If a principle promotes equality then the arbitrariness has to be kept aside.

Also it was held that Equality is a dynamic concept with many aspects and dimensions and it cannot be cribbed cabined and confined within traditional and doctrinaire limits. From a positivistic point of view, equality is antithetic to arbitrariness.

2 Dec 2023
Question:-Defendant offered to sell a house on 25-11-89 to plaintiff for 90,000/. On 10-12-89 plaintiff made offer of 80,000/-. This offer was refused by defendant owner on 15-12-89. On 20-12-89 plaintiff wrote to defendant that he was now prepared to pay Rs. 90,000. Defendant owner refused to sell the house. Plaintiff filed suit against defendant for breach of contract. How would you decide?

Answer:-
As per section 2(b) of the Indian Contract Act it has been stated that when a person to whom the proposal is made signifies his assent thereto then he is said to have given an acceptance.

In the given definition the term “thereto” means the acceptance will be a valid acceptance only when it has been given for the same proposal which has been made to the acceptor. As per section 7 the acceptor is duty bound to accept the same proposal which has been made to him without adding or deleting any of the condition of the proposal. If the acceptor changes any condition of the proposal then it does not amount to a valid acceptance rather it amounts to an implied rejection of the original offer. When the acceptor accepts the offer by changing the conditions it is known as a counter offer. And whenever a counter offer is made the original offer is cancelled.

Applying the above law to the present facts it shall be concluded that when 10- 12-89 plaintiff made an offer to the defendant to purchase for rs. 80000 this amounted to counter offer and not acceptance as he changed the terms of the offer.

In the case of Hyde v. Wrench it was held that a proposal once rejected comes to an end. Therefore when on 10-12-89 the plaintiff made a counter offer to the defendant then the original offer stands cancelled or rejected. Therefore the plaintiff’s claim against the defendant will not be successful as there was no binding contract between the plaintiff and the defendant.

1 Dec 2023
Question:-Sanjoy cuts down a tree on Vijoy’s ground with the intention of dishonestly taking the tree out of Vijoy’s possession without the consent of Vijoy. Sanjoy is prosecuted for the offence of theft. Sanjoy takes the defence that the offence of theft can be committed in respect of only a movable property and as the tree is not a movable property, he cannot be convicted for ‘theft’. Is Sanjoy guilty for the offence of theft? Give reasons.

Answer:-
As per section 378 IPC theft is an offence when a person mover a movable property out of the possession of the other person’s possession without such person’s consent. This moving or taking must be done with dishonest intention to deprive the other person of his property wrongfully.

Also explanation I to section 378 IPC states that if any property is attached to the earth then it cannot amount to theft of such property as theft can be done against movable property only. But it has been clarified in that explanation that once the property is severed from earth then it becomes capable of being the subject of theft as soon as it is severed from the earth.

Applying the above law to the present facts it can be concluded that when Sanjoy had cut down the tree on the Vijoy’s land with the intention to take it with him without Vijoy’s consent amounts to theft under section 378 and punishable under section 379 IPC.

Also applying the explanation I to the present facts it can be concluded that even though a tree is not a movable property but as soon as it is severed from the land it becomes movable and capable of being the subject matter of theft.

30 Nov 2023
Question:-Hearsay evidence is not admissible. Explain. What are the exceptions to the rule?

Answer:-
The best evidence rule states that the direct evidence always excludes hearsay evidence or indirect evidence. Direct evidence means such evidence of a fact which can be directly perceived by any of his senses. On the other hand hearsay evidence means indirect evidence which is not directly perceived. When any person has seen an incident and then he tells it to some other person then if such person gives evidence of such incident then it will be hearsay evidence.
A fact which is not directly perceived is not admissible in evidence as it has been stated in section 60 that oral evidence must always be direct and not indirect.
The rationale behind this best evidence rule that hearsay evidence is not reliable as it is not directly perceived. The person giving evidence of such hearsay fact may manipulate the facts and will not feel responsible towards it as he has not seen it directly. Also the person cannot be cross examined on the basis of hearsay fact stated by him.
EXCEPTIONS TO THE RULE
There are certain exceptions to it. These are as follows-
1. Dying declaration
2. Opinions of experts
3. Admissions and confessions
4. Res gestae
5. Statements of persons, who cannot be found, are incapable of coming to the court etc.
Note- but technically dying declaration is not an exception as the statement of a person who is now dead is directly heard and recorded by the person who is giving evidence of such statement in the court.

29 Nov 2023
Question:- All contracts are agreements but all agreements are not contract. Explain.

Answer:-
The above stated fact is a manifestation of a cause and effect relationship between the agreement and contract.

As per section 2 (e) of the Indian Contract Act an agreement is a promise or set of promises forming consideration for each other. Also as per section 2(h) of the act a contract is an agreement which is enforceable by law. Therefore for a contract an agreement is necessary first. Only after becoming a valid agreement then it can be converted into a valid contract.

An agreement will become a valid contract when it can be legally enforced by the parties. Legal enforceability here means that the contract in order to be a valid contract has to fulfil the ingredients of a valid contract as per section 10 of the Act.

Section 10 of the Act states that an agreement will convert into a contract the following essential feature must be followed-

1. Free consent- an agreement will be a contract in which the consent of both the parties is free. Consent means meeting of minds i.e. agreeing upon the same thing in the same sense. The consent of both the parties must be free from any effect of coercion, undue influence, misrepresentation, fraud or mistake.

2. Competent parties- the parties to the contract must be competent. Competency as per section 11 and 12 means that the parties must be major. Also the parties must not be of unsound mind and must not have been disqualified by law.

3. Lawful consideration- the consideration of the agreement must be lawful as per section 23 of the act i.e. it must not be against the provision of law or must not defeat the law or must not be immoral or against public policy.

4. Lawful object- the object of the agreement must also be lawful as per section 23 of the act i.e. it must not be against the provision of law or must not defeat the law or must not be immoral or against public policy. 5. Not expressly declared as void- the agreement must not be such which has been expressly declared as a void agreement under section 26 to 30 of the Act.

28 Nov 2023
Question:- What are the major commitments of the Constitution of India as incorporated in its preamble?

Answer:-
The Preamble to the Indian Constitution is the introduction to the Constitution. It gives the objects and the aims that the Constitution sought to achieve. Also it tells about the intention of the constituent assembly that what the makers of the constitution wanted to achieve.

As it was held in the case of Re Berubari (1960) it was held that the Preamble is the key to open the minds of the makers of the Constitution.

There are various major commitments incorporated in the Indian Constitution. These are as follows-

1. Sovereign- in the preamble the people of India resolve to create a nation which will be a sovereign. The term sovereign means that a nation which is an independent nation i.e. which is not dependent on the foreign nations and is a self-reliant one.

2. Socialist- socialist here refers to social democracy and social justice. It means achievement of socialistic goals. It also signifies the concept of distributive justice.

3. Secular- it is also an inherent feature of the Indian Constitution. It means that the State will not have any religion of its own. This also means that the state shall not favour any religion rather each and every religion is equal in the eyes of the State.

4. Democratic- this is a feature of the Indian Constitution which implies that the representatives in our nation are appointed for the people, by the people and of the people. The people of India elect their governments by a system of universal adult franchise, popularly known as one person one vote.

5. Republic- In a republican form of government, the head of state is elected and not a hereditary monarch. Thus, this word denotes a government where no one holds public power as a proprietary right. As opposed to a monarchy, in which the head of state is appointed on a hereditary basis for life or until abdication, a democratic republic is an entity in which the head of state is elected, directly or indirectly, for a fixed tenure.

6. Justice- the ultimate aim of the Constitution of India is to attain the Justice. Justice here includes the social justice, economic justice and political justice.

7. Liberty- this is also one of the resolution of the Preamble. Liberty here means freedom of action. Liberty includes liberty of thought, belief, faith and worship.

8. Equality- the preamble also motivates the principle of equality among the individuals. Equality here means the equality of status and equality of opportunities.

9. Fraternity, unity and integrity- also it is the object of the Constitution to encourage the feeling of brotherhood among the individuals. Also the preamble aims to promote that the dignity of the individuals is also maintained.

27 Nov 2023
Question:-‘A’ sends a price list of goods to ‘B’ on the latter’s request. B places an order on dealer A for goods specified in the price list on prices quoted in said list. A did not execute orders for supply. What is B’s remedy, if any?

Answer:-
The concept involved in the question is the law related to invitation to proposal or invitation to offer.

Invitation to offer means when the person is not making a proposal rather he is just sharing information about something. Invitation to offer is not a part of the formation of a contract because contract starts from the very root i.e. the proposal. In invitation to proposal the intention is not to obtain the assent but to invite the other person to make a proposal. It is mere sharing of information which can be interpreted by construction. The intention has to be seen. The consequence of the invitation to proposal is that the person, to whom the proposal is made, makes a proposal for the same. Whereas in proposal the consequence is that the person to whom gives his acceptance for the same.

In the case of Pharmaceuticals Society of Great Britain v. Boot Cash Chemist (1953) it was held that when the goods are displayed on shelves then it amounts to a mere invitation to proposal and there cannot be a binding contract merely on the basis of such invitation.

Applying the above law to the present facts it can be concluded that when A sent a pricelist to of goods to B it was an invitation to offer. When B placed an order to A of the goods mentioned in the pricelist then it amounts to a proposal. It will not be a binding contract until A gives acceptance for the same. Therefore B will not get any remedy until A gives his acceptance.

25 Nov 2023
Question:-A in great fire pulls down houses in order to prevent the conflagration from spreading. A did it in good faith, saving the life and property and to avoid greater harm. What offence, if any, is made out in this case? Give legal provision.

Answer:-
As per section 81 of Indian Penal Code 1860 if any person commits an act without any criminal intention in good faith and in order to prevent any bigger harm from being committed then it will not amount to an offence and the person will be completely excused from his liability.

Section 81 is a manifestation of the principle of necessity. In this if person causes harm by committing any act only with the intention of preventing a bigger harm from being committed then it is a situation of necessity and he must not be penalised.

In the case of Queen v. Dudley and Stephen (1884) and US v. Holmes (1842) it was held that the defence of necessity can be availed in cases of public necessity and not for private necessity or for your own necessity. Public necessity here means the act must be done for the benefit of some other person.

Applying the above law to the present facts it can be concluded that when A in great fire pulled down the houses in order to prevent the fire from spreading is an act of necessity as he is acting here in good faith i.e. for saving the life and property of others. Also he did not have any criminal intention and he pulled the roofs of houses in order to prevent a bigger harm from being committed.

Therefore A shall not be liable for any offence and his act will be completely excused from criminal liability.

24 Nov 2023
Question:-What is the rule of Res gestae? How has the Indian Evidence Act recognised this rule?

Answer:-
Res gestae is a latin term which literally means that part of the same transaction. This is a concept from English law which means that the facts which form the part of same transaction are relevant to each other. The concept of res gestae was propounded in the case of R v. Andrews. In this case the judgement of Ratton v. R was followed.

The general principle of res gestae is manifest in section 6, 7 and 8 of the Indian Evidence act. In these sections the facts which even though in themselves are not facts in issue but they are relevant because they are motive, effect, preparation, cause etc. and are a part of same transaction and hence part of res gestae.

The phrase “part of the same transaction” has been expressly used in section 6 of the Act. Section 6 manifestly deals with the concept of res gestae.

As per section 6 a fact shall be relevant if it is a part of same transaction. Here the facts may not be the fact in issue in themselves but they are a part of the same transaction. Also it does not matter that whether those facts occurred at same time or place or different time or place still they will be relevant under section 6 of they are a part of the same transaction.

The important factor to be determined here is when the transaction started and when did it end. It is between the continuance of such transaction that all the facts shall be relevant. There is hard and fast rule as to the starting and ending of the transaction rather it is a question of fact. The facts which are spontaneously, naturally connected to each other or are so connected that there is not manipulation are said to be a part of same transaction.

This principle was followed by the court in the landmark judgement of Sawal Das v. State of Bihar (1974).

23 Nov 2023
Question:-Proposal lies in the very roots of the formation of contract. Explain.

Answer:-
The above mentioned statement is a manifestation of the fact that the procedure of the formation of contract starts from the stage of proposal. Proposal is the first step to form a contract.

Merely having an intention to obtain the assent is not sufficient rather proposal is complete when it is communicated to the person to whom it is made. Therefore proposal is that point from where the contract formation starts.

When the proposal is communicated to the person to whom it is made accepts the same then it gets converted into a promise. The manifestation of this lies in the language of section 2(b) i.e. a proposal when accepted becomes a promise. A mere promise is not binding rather it can be enforced only when it becomes an agreement. To convert a promise into an agreement consideration has to be added to a promise. When we add some value to the promise then it becomes an agreement.

A mere agreement is not a contract. Rather as per section 2(h) of the Indian Contract Act only such agreements are contracts which are legally enforceable. Therefore agreements which can be legally enforced by the parties in the court of law then such agreements finally become contracts.

Hence it is justified to state that proposal lies in the roots of the formation of the contract.

22 Nov 2023
Question:-A in great fire pulls down houses in order to prevent the conflagration from spreading. A did it in good faith, saving the life and property and to avoid greater harm. What offence, if any, is made out in this case? Give legal provision.

Answer:-
Section 81 of the Indian Penal Code states about defence of public necessity. As per the said provision it is stated that when any person without any criminal intention and with the knowledge that it is likely to cause harm does an act and causes harm with the purpose or avoiding other harm, he shall not be liable for any offence. For application of section 81 the act must have been done in good faith.

Public necessity in section 81 means the situation when a person considers it necessary to cause a smaller harm in order to prevent a bigger harm. Therefore the act must be done as a matter of public necessity and not private necessity. Hence it is important that the person must be acting under good faith i.e with due care and caution.

Applying the above law to the present facts it may be concluded that in the present facts the act of A pulling down the houses in order to prevent the fire from spreading is an act of necessity. Also it is evident in the facts that he was acting in good faith as he is doing the act in order to save the life and properties of others. Also A’s act was done in order to prevent a bigger harm from being committed.

Therefore it can be concluded that A shall not be liable for any offence as his act of pulling the houses down shall be excused under section 81 of the IPC.

21 Nov 2023
Question:-Point out whether in the following cases the facts sought to be proved are relevant.
(i) A is charged with shooting at B with intent to kill him. In order to prove A's intent the prosecution wants to prove the fact that A has earlier shot one C.
(ii) A is tried for rioting and is proved to have marched at the head of the mob; the prosecution wants to prove that the mob was shouting.

Answer:-
(i) Section 14 Indian Evidence Act states about the state of mind, state of body and bodily feeling. It states that intention is a mental element or state of mind and is relevant under section 14. But explanation 1 of section 14 states that whenever we talk about the relevancy of intention as a fact then it has to be examined that the intention existed against that particular person and not against any other persons in general. Applying the above law to the present facts it can be concluded that the fact that A has the intention to kill B is a relevant fact under section 14 of the Act. But as per explanation 1 the fact that earlier A has shot C is not relevant to prove A’s intention against B because intention must be specifically towards a particular person and not a general one. Therefore this fact is irrelevant under section 14.

(ii) Section 9 of the Indian Evidence Act deals with the facts which are explanatory. Explanatory facts are those which explain the fact in issue or relevant fact.

Applying the above law to the present facts it can be concluded that the fact that mob which was being headed by A was shouting or crying is relevant under section 9 of the Act. The fact that A was heading the mob and the mob or the people of the mob were crying explains the fact in issue that the A was rioting.

Therefore this fact is a relevant fact under section 9 of the Act.

20 Nov 2023
Question:-What do you understand by the doctrine of ‘feeding the grant by estoppel’?

Answer:-
Feeding of grant by estoppel has its essence in the principle of estoppel. It means that when one person has made a representation and the other person has relied upon it and has altered his position, then the person making the statement cannot retract his statement. This is based upon the principle of equity and justice.

Feeding of grant by estoppel means that when a person has transferred an immovable property to any person by falsely stating that he is authorised to transfer and the opposite person has relied upon that statement then afterwards the transferor has to execute the transfer of property by the interest that he acquires.

This doctrine is derived from another Latin maxim ‘nemo dat quod non habet’ which means ‘no one can confer a better or higher right to property than what he himself possesses’. Section 43 is an exception to this maxim. This doctrine has its manifestation in section 43 of transfer of property act.

As per section 43 of the act the following are the conditions to be fulfilled- 1. There has to be a fraudulent or erroneous transfer of immovable property. It is not required that the transferor has deliberately transferred with defective title rather it will be sufficient if mistakenly he has transferred the property having defective title. 2. The transferee has a right to get the transfer executed against the transferor through the title that he subsequently acquires. This is due to the application of the doctrine of estoppel.

18 Nov 2023
Question:-A attempts to rescue B from the custody of police and while making such attempt caused grievous hurt to constable C and simple hurt to constable D.

Answer:-
As per section 218 CrPC generally for each offence separate charge shall be framed. Section 219 is an exception to the general rule.

In some cases even though the offences are different but they can be charged together. As per section 219 if a person has committed different offence but these offences are committed in the same transaction then the charges can be joined. But for this the offences must be of same kind. Also it is a requirement that the offences must have been committed within twelve months and the number of offences must not exceed three.
Applying the above law to the present facts it can be stated that A has committed attempted to cause grievous hurt to C and hurt to D i.e. he has committed the offences of the same kind. Also he has committed these offences in the same transaction.
Hence as per section 219, A can be charged for attempting to cause grievous hurt and actually causing simple hurt jointly.

17 Nov 2023
Question:-A wants to kill B with arsenic poison and with that purpose he administers sugar to him in food, believing the sugar to be arsenic. Discuss the liability of A.

Answer:-
The legal point involved in the given problem lies in section 511 Indian Penal Code. The concept involved here is criminal attempt. Attempt basically is the second last stage of a crime. The attempt of any offence is punishable under IPC. If there are no specific sections for attempt in the IPC then such attempt will be covered under section 511.

As per section 511 a person shall be held liable for attempt of an offence if he has done some act towards the commission of the offence. In such cases the actual commission of the offence is not required rather the person must have committed an act towards the actual commission and then due to the external interferences the offence could not be finally completed. Also the possibility of the happening of the offence is not mandatory. It will not be examined that whether the offence was actually possible or not rather it was examined that whether the accused believed his act to be sufficient for the commission of that offence or not.

Applying the above law to the present facts it can be concluded that when a person with the intention to kill administers poison to the other person but that was actually not poison rather it was sugar, so the point to be considered here is not whether the offence was possible or not rather the point to be considered here is whether the accused believed his preparation to be sufficient for the actual commission of the offence.

Therefore it can be concluded here that in the present case the accused had the intention to kill B and with such intention he administered poison in his food. He believed his act to be sufficient in order to commit the offence. Hence he would be liable for attempt to murder.

16 Nov 2023
Question:-Write a short note on Doctrine of Supervening impossibility.

Answer:-
Introduction The doctrine of supervening impossibility has been given under section 56 of the Indian Contract Act. This literally means that the contract was not impossible from the very beginning rather subsequently it became impossible due to the uncertainties. This doctrine is dealt with under section 56 para 2 Indian Contract Act. It has been stated that the contract always frustrates because of impossibility. As per section 56 there may be a situation in which the contract initially is valid but due to the subsequent impossibility or due to some situation which the party cannot control, the contract becomes illegal to be performed. In such situations the contract which was initially valid subsequently becomes void due to illegality or impossibility. The impossibility can be of various types. Following are the types of impossibilities which are recognised under the law of contract.

1. Physical impossibility- The contract may become impossible due to physical impossibility. It means that the contract has become impossible to be performed.  Physical impossibility may be that the subject matter of the contract was destroyed (taylor v. Caldwell)  Also the contract can become physically impossible due to the fact that the event for which the contract was entered into did not happen (Krell v. Henry)  It also covers the situation that the parties died or became incapable of physically performing the contract (Robinson v. Davison).

2. Legal impossibility- Also the contract in some situations may be legally impossible. This means that after the making of the contract the law changed and made the contract impossible to be performed. Subsequent to the change in law the contract becomes illegal and hence impossible.

3. Practical impossibility- Also the impossibility may be a practical impossibility which means that even though the contract is physically possible but the actual performance is not rational or feasible (Satyabrata Ghose v. Mugneeram Bangur).

15 Nov 2023
Question:-Discuss the trial procedure of sessions court in detail?

Answer:- The procedure of sessions trial has been given under section 225- 237 CrPC. In these provisions the process of sessions trial has been discussed in detail.

Following are the provisions related to the process of sessions trial-

1. The case in a sessions trial is always opened by the prosecutions. The prosecution opens the case by briefing the court about the details and facts of the case. The prosecutor shall open his case by describing the charge brought against the accused and stating by what evidence he proposes to prove the guilt of the accused.

2. If based upon the record of the case and the documents submitted, and after hearing the submissions of the accused and the prosecution if the Judge considers that there is not sufficient ground for proceeding against the accused, he shall discharge the accused and record his reasons for so doing.

3. If the accused is not discharged and the Judge is of opinion that there is ground for presuming that the accused has committed an offence which is exclusively triable by the Court of Session then he shall frame a charge. If the case is not exclusively triable by the the court of session then the judge may frame a charge against the accused and, by order, transfer the case for trial to the Chief Judicial Magistrate, or any other Judicial Magistrate of the first class and direct the accused to appear before the Chief Judicial Magistrate, or the Judicial Magistrate of the first class.

4. After hearing the charges if the accused pleads guilty then the judge shall record his plea and convict him on plea of guilt. 5. Then the court shall send the summons to the prosecution witnesses and for prosecution evidences. Then the prosecution shall produce its witnesses and evidences. Also the court will examine the accused personally under section 313. On the basis of the prosecution evidence and the examination of the accused if the judge is of the opinion that the accused has not committed any offence then he shall record an order of acquittal.

6. When the accused is not acquitted then the court will call him to defend him and to produce the evidences in this behalf. The court will issue the summons to the witnesses and the defence will produce the evidences in this regard.

7. Finally the prosecution and the defence shall have the final arguments. The prosecutor shall sum up the case and the accused or his pleader shall be entitled to reply.

8. The last step of the procedure of the Court of Session trial is the judgement. After hearing arguments and points of law, the Judge shall give a judgment in the case.

11 Nov 2023
Question:-A, by putting Z in fear of grievous hurt, dishonestly induces Z to sign or affix his seal to a lank paper and deliver it to A. Z signs and delivers the paper to A. Here, paper so signed may be converted into a valuable security. What offence, if any, has been committed by A? Support your answer with the help of law and reasons.

A. Section 383 of the Indian Penal Code defines the offence of extortion. Extortion means that when any person puts another person under the fear of injury and induces the person so put in fear to deliver the property. The inducement if given to deliver something which is a valuable security or something which can be converted into a valuable security then that would also amount to extortion.

The term injury here is defined under section 44 as an injury which is caused to the body, mind, reputation or property of an individual. Also the term valuable security as defined under section 30 IPC as any document in which any legal right is created, extended, transferred, restricted, extinguished or released, or whereby any person acknowledges that he lies under legal liability, or has not a certain legal right.

Applying the above law to the present facts it can be concluded that in the present facts in hand A had put Z in fear of grievous hurt. Here grievous hurt amounts to fear of injury as per the definition under section 44 as it is a fear to cause harm to the body illegally.

Also the fear must be caused in order to induce the person to deliver the movable property or any other valuable security. In the present case in hand the fear of grievous hurt has been caused in order to induce Z to sign on a blank paper. Here blank paper even though prima facie is not a property or any valuable security but it can definitely be converted into a valuable security and hence is covered under the conditions of the offence of extortion.

And under that fear Z signed on the blank paper.

Therefore it can be concluded that in the present case A has committed the offence of extortion under section 383 and it is punishable under section 384 IPC.

10 Nov 2023
Question:-What do you understand by a foreign judgment? In what manner may decree of a Foreign Court be executed in India?

The term foreign judgement has been defined under section 2(6) as the judgement of the foreign court. Foreign court has been defined under section 2(5) as the court which is situated outside India and not established within the territory of India. A judgement given by any foreign court shall be conclusive between the parties to the suit.

The conclusiveness of the judgement shall be for the matter which has been adjudicated by that foreign court in such judgement. That shall be conclusive between the parties to the suit or between the persons who are litigating under the parties to the suit. There are certain exceptions to the main rule stated above. These are the situations in

which the judgements of the foreign court are not conclusive proof-

1. When the court passing the judgement does not have the jurisdiction i.e territorial or pecuniary.

2. When the judgement has not been given on the merits. Merits here mean that the parties did not get an opportunity to present the case or there was a material defect or irregularity in the case.

3. When the judgement has been given upon the incorrect view of international law. Also where in the judgement there is a refusal to recognise the Indian law that is in force.

4. The proceedings of that particular judgement are opposed to the principles of natural justice. Here principles of natural justice means that each party must get an opportunity to represent his case and there must be a reasoned judgement.

5. When the foreign judgement has been obtained on the basis of fraud.

6. When the judgement results into the breach of any law in India.

As per section 43 of the CPC the judgement of the foreign court which is established by any authority outside India shall be executed in the same manner which is provided for the territory to which this law applies. If such foreign court is located in any reciprocating territory then as per section 44A it can be executed in the same manner as if it has been passed by the District Court.

9 Nov 2023
Question:-Discuss the provisions related to framing of charges and contents of charges.

Charges mean the accusations upon the accused persons as to the offences that he has committed. The charges are framed by the Magistrate. After the framing of charges the trial starts and the inquiry stage is over. Section 211 to 224 CrPC provides for the rules related to the framing of charges. The policy behind framing of charges lies in the rules of principles of natural justice. This means that as per the rule of audi alterum partem i.e. nobody shall be condemned unheard charges are framed in order to make the accused person aware of the accusations that are put upon him so that he can defend himself in a proper manner.

Contents of charges

As per section 211 of CrPC it has been stated that every charge must specifically state the offence which the accused has committed as per the evidences gathered against him. Also if the law under which such offence has been given defines such an offence by a different name then the charge must specify such name and define it accordingly. The charge must contain the law and the section under which such offence has been punished in the Indian Penal code. The charge shall be written in the language of the court. The language which has been used in the charge must be the formal language which has been used in the section and must be according to the format. If the accused has been previously convicted of some other offence then the date, place etc of the commission of such offence must be mentioned in the charge. Also if the accused shall be subject to enhanced punishment or some different kind of punishment then this fact must be specifically mentioned in the charge.

Also as per section 212 the charge must also contain the particulars as to the time and place and the person against whom the offence has been committed. Also as per section 213 if it is required that the manner of the commission of the offence has to be given then such manner must also be stated in the charge.

8 Nov 2023
Question:- What do you mean by common intention? Differentiate it from common object.

common intention is given under section 34 of the Indian Penal code. This is the principle of joint liability under criminal law. Common intention means having shared the same intention. Common intention is when two or more persons have the consensus as idem regarding the act that they want to commit.
As per section 34 IPC when two or more persons commit a criminal act in furtherance of common intention then each of such person shall be held liable for the commission of the offence in the same manner as if it done by him alone.
Therefore following are the ingredients of section 34-
1. There must be prior meeting of minds between the accused persons. The meeting of mind can be specific or prior and it can even be made on the spot. It need not be distinct and specific.
2. The persons have committed the criminal act in furtherance of common intention. In furtherance here means that the act must be committed in the extension of the common intention that they have shared.
3. The accused persons must be actively participating. Active participation here does not mean mere physical presence rather it means the act done by the accused.

Difference between common intention and common object

COMMON INTENTION COMMON OBJECT
It has been given under section 34 IPC. It has been given under section 149 IPC.
In this the criminal intention must be done in furtherance of common intention. The act towards the common object must be done in prosecution of common object.
The accused must be actively participating. The members of the unlawful assembly must be physically present on the spot.

7 Nov 2023
Question:- What are the provisions of the Criminal Procedure Code regarding the place of trial in criminal cases? What is the correct place of trial in the following case?
A is charged and tried at Delhi with wrongfully concealing a kidnapped person. The kidnapping took place at Delhi but the concealment occurred in Shimla.

The jurisdiction in a criminal trial is very important. The reason is that for a correct procedure it is very important that the criminal case is filed in the correct court. There are provisions related to jurisdiction in the criminal procedure code. Therefore in a criminal case the jurisdiction is decided as per the rules given from section 177 to section 189 crpc.
As per section 177 it has been declared that each offence must be tried within the jurisdiction of that court where the offence has been committed.
But there are certain exceptions to the general rule which has been given under section 177-

1. As per section 178 if the offence has been committed partially in one area and partially in other area then the jurisdiction of both the courts is established. Where the offence is a continuing one and it continues in more than one area or it is committed in several acts then each of the court shall have the jurisdiction.

2. When the offence which is committed is the consequence of an act or is in relation to the other act then the courts of all the respective areas shall have the jurisdiction.

3. When the offence which is committed is kidnapping then the court within the territory of which the person is taken or conveyed will have the jurisdiction. The same rule applies in the commission of the offence of theft, receiving stolen property, dealing with stolen property etc.

4. If the offence has been committed in letters then the courts within the territory of which the letters were sent or received shall have the jurisdiction.

As per section 181 it is stated that when any person has been kidnapped then the courts of the places in which the kidnapping has been committed or the person has been conveyed or abducted shall have the jurisdiction. All the respective courts shall have the parallel jurisdiction to try the case.
Applying the above law to the present facts it can be concluded that the courts of both Delhi as well as Shimla shall have the jurisdiction to try the case of kidnapping. The reason is that as per section 181 A was kidnapped in Delhi but conveyed in Shimla and hence the both the courts shall have the jurisdiction.

6 Nov 2023
Question:-Define Criminal Conspiracy. What are its essential ingredients?

The offence of criminal conspiracy is an inchoate offence. The policy behind inchoate offences is to prevent the offence from being committed. Therefore even before the main offence is committed the act is punishable under IPC.
In criminal conspiracy also the actual commission of the illegal act is not mandatory rather it is the mere agreement to commit an illegal act which shall be punishable.
Criminal conspiracy has been defined under section 120A of the IPC. As per this provision the criminal conspiracy is an agreement in which two or more persons agree to commit an illegal act or a legal act but by illegal means. For the offence under section 120A mere agreement is the actus reus.

Essential ingredients of criminal conspiracy
1. Two or more persons agree- one of the most essential ingredients of the offence of criminal conspiracy is that there has to be an agreement i.e. there has to be consensus ad idem between two persons. The offence of criminal conspiracy cannot be committed otherwise than as an agreement. The persons must agree to commit the illegal act.

2. Illegal act or an act in illegal manner- the agreement between the two or more persons must be to commit an illegal act. Also it may be an agreement to commit an act in an illegal manner.

Illegal as defined under section 43 means that anything which is an offence or which is prohibited by law or which gives ground for civil action. Therefore there are three types of criminal conspiracies under the IPC. These are criminal conspiracy to commit an offence, to commit an act which is prohibited by law and to commit an act which is a civil wrong.

Mere agreement to commit an offence is sufficient and no further act is required to punish a person for criminal conspiracy. Whereas in criminal conspiracy to commit an act which is prohibited by law or which gives ground for civil action mere agreement is not the actus reus rather an act in furtherance is needed to be committed.

4 Nov 2023
Question:-The rule against perpetuity is founded on the general principle or policy that the liberty of alienation shall not be exercised to its own destruction’. Discuss.

The rule against perpetuity has been given under section 14 of the transfer of property act. The rule against perpetuity means that the property cannot be held for indefinite period of time. The basic policy behind such rule is that it is against the policy of free movement of property. This is because the alienation of property for an indefinite period of time is against the principle of justice as such alienation destroys or damages the property and also it leads to the violation of the people’s right to transfer property. In the case of Stanley v. Leigh it was held that the alienation of property for an indefinite period of time is against the policy of law and it destroys the property. Here rule against property as per the provision of section 14 of the transfer of property act means that the following conditions must be followed-
For the rule against perpetuity to apply it has been stated that-
1. For the lifetime of a person- the property can be transferred for the lifetime of a person. During such lifetime the person is expected to preserve the property with sue diligence.
2. For the minority of a person- the property can also be transferred for the minority of a person i.e. for a period of eighteen years. This is the maximum time for which a property can be held or alienated i.e. for the life of a particular person and thereafter till the minority of another person.
3. The person must be in existence on the death of the former one- the person for whose minority the property is being transferred must be in existence at the time of the death of the person for whose lifetime the property was alienated. If the person is not in existence at the time of death of the former then the property shall pass to the legal heirs of such deceased person.

3 Nov 2023
Question:-Tony borrowed a sum of Rs. 5000/- from John in order to bet with Mahesh as to the result of a cricket match. The betting on a cricket match is not authorized by law. Tony lost the bet to Mahesh. Tony neither paid a sum of Rs. 5000/- to Mahesh nor returned Rs. 5000/- to John. Mahesh and John initiated legal remedies against tony separately for the recovery of 5000/- . Decide.

The main question to be determined in the present case is whether a party to an agreement enforce such agreement if such agreement is in the nature of wager’s agreement. Also it has to be determined whether the agreement in which the object was unlawful can be duly enforced or not.
The law on this lies in section 23 and 30 of the Indian Contract Act respectively. As per section 23 of the act the agreements in which the object is unlawful then such an agreement is void. In the present problem tony has borrowed the sum of 5000 form john for the object of betting in cricket which is not lawful or not authorised by law. Therefore this agreement shall be void and John cannot enforce it and claim 5000.
Also as per section 30 the wager’s agreement is void. Wager’s agreement here means that an agreement for an act which is an uncertain act and both the parties to the agreement have mutual chances of winning and losing in it. In the present problem the transaction between tony and Mahesh is in the nature of wager’s agreement. In the agreement of betting it is dependent upon an uncertain event and there are mutual chances of winning and losing. Therefore Mahesh cannot enforce the agreement against tony and claim 5000.

25 Oct 2023
Question:-When is a husband ordered to pay maintenance allowance to his wife? What order may a Magistrate pass when the husband fails to comply with the order?

Maintenance under section 125 CrPC is given by the person to his wife, parents, minor son, and daughter etc. Section 125 states various conditions to be fulfilled to make any person liable for the payment of maintenance.
As per section 125 the husband can be ordered to pay the maintenance to his wife when the wife is incapable to maintain herself. The wife referred to under section 125 means a wife who has been divorced by the husband or the wife who has obtained the divorce from her husband.
If the man offers to maintain the wife but the wife refuses to live with him then the Court shall consider the grounds of such refusal. The ground that the husband keeps a mistress or has married some other woman shall be considered to be a valid ground for the woman to refuse to live with the man.


A wife shall not be entitled to get the maintenance when-

1. She is living with some other person in adultery.
2. Without any sufficient reason she refuses to live with the husband.
3. They are living separately by mutual consent.


If a maintenance order has been passed and the person fails to comply with such order and does not pay the maintenance then the Magistrate of first class may issue a warrant for the payment of the amount and may also sentence such person to an imprisonment for not exceeding one month.

23 Oct 2023
Question:-What is First Information Report? Discuss the evidentiary value. What is the effect of delay in lodging of FIR?

The First Information Report is a report about the information related to the commission of a cognizable offence. this information is given by the informant to the police officer. FIR is only related to the cognizable offences. As per section 154 CrPC when an informant gives the information about the commission of cognizable offences to the police officer then the police officer has to reduce it into writing and get it signed by the informant. Then the copies of the first information report is to be given to the informant free of cost.
As per section 154 if the police officer refuses to lodge the FIR the then the informant has the remedy to give the information to the Superintendent of Police and he in return may either conduct the investigation himself or may direct the police officer incharge to conduct the investigation.
In the case of Lalita Kumari v. State of Uttar Pradesh (2013 SC) it was held that the information as to the cognizable offence I.e. FIR is the first step towards putting the criminal law into motion. Also it was held that it is mandatory for the police officer to lodge the FIR as it is the foundation stone for the delivery of justice.


Evidentiary Value of First Information Report

The FIR recorded by the police officer is not a substantive piece of evidence as it is not a statement given on oath. But it may be used for many other purposes like for corroboration or for contradiction.

FIR may be used for the following purposes-
  • 1.Though the FIR is not a substantive piece of evidence, it helps in corroborating the facts and statements made by the informant and cross-examining him thereafte .
  • 2. As per Section 8 of the Indian Evidence Act (1872), the FIR can be used as proof of the actions of the informant.
  • 3. As per Section 32(1) of the Indian Evidence Act (1872), if the informant dies and the statement recorded by the police in the FIR includes the reason for his death or about the events that might lead to his death, then it can act as substantial proof to validate the reasons for his death. This acts as a dying declaration, wherein the person testifies about the circumstances leading to his death.
  • 4. As per Section 145 of the Indian Evidence Act (1872), the FIR may be used to refute the informant’s testimony. This Section allows the contradiction of witnesses during the cross-examination.
  • 5. As per Section 157 of the Indian Evidence Act (1872), the FIR may be used in support of a witness but cannot be used to refute or undermine the testimony of other witnesses.

Delay in lodging FIR

When there is a delay in lodging FIR then it will not be a material irregularity rather the court shall be suspicious about conduct of the informant.
But in incest cases or in rape cases there will be no such suspicion as in this the social stigma is involved and the delay in lodging FIR is explained. This was held in the case of State of Punjab v. Gurmeet Singh.

21 Oct 2023
Question:-what is the presumption related to the legitimacy of paternity in the Indian Evidence Act. Can such presumption be rebutted?

the presumption related to legitimate paternity has been given under section 112 of the evidence act. Section 112 is in the nature of the presumption and that too the presumption of law. It is a principle of conclusive proof i.e. an irrebuttable presumption of law.
As per section 112 the child shall be presumed to be the legitimate child of the man when the conditions of the section are fulfilled.

Following are the conditions to be fulfilled for establishing the conclusive proof of legitimate paternity-


1. Child born during the continuance of lawful marriage-

the child whose paternity is in question must be born during the continuity of a valid marriage. The essential requirement for this is that the marriage must be a lawful valid marriage as per the conditions of section 5 of the Hindu marriage act.

2. Child born after dissolution of marriage-

a child born after the dissolution of marriage but within 280 days of such dissolution the he or she shall be presumed to be the legitimate child of the man. The essential condition for this that the woman did not remarry with another man before the birth of that child.

3. Non access-

the only defence that can be taken by the man in this presumption is that he has to prove the non-access towards the woman. Non access here means that the man has to prove that he did not have the opportunity to have a sexual relationship with the woman.

Being a presumption of conclusive proof technically this presumption cannot be rebutted as it has been given under section 4 that the party does not have a right to disprove the conclusive proof. But as section 112 is a provision related to the interest of justice the larger societal interest lies in the fact that the conclusive proof must be allowed to be rebutted. But that must not be a general rebuttal rather such proof can be rebutted only by the most perfect and accurate piece of evidence.

In the case of NandlalWasudevBadwaik v. LataNandlalBadwaik ( 2014 SC) it was held that the DNA test is considered to be the best evidence in cases dealing with legitimate paternity as this is a scientifically perfect test. Therefore in the interest of justice the conclusive proof in the section 112 shall stand rebutted but only by the DNA test report.

20 Oct 2023
Question:-Elaborate upon the jurisdiction of the civil courts under CPC.
The jurisdiction of the civil court has been given under section 9 of the Civil Procedure Code. As per the legal jurisprudence section 9 is said to be the gateway to CPC. In the said section the conditions have been given which are imposed upon the jurisdiction of the civil court. Also section 9 contains the bars which restrict the civil court to take the cognizance upon a matter.

As per section 9 the civil court can take cognizance upon the all suits of civil nature unless their cognizance is expressly barred under the Code or it is impliedly barred under any other statute or law.

Therefore following are the key points of section 9-
As per section 9 following points have to be kept in mind-


1. Court shall have the jurisdiction- the usage of the word shall makes it a mandatory provision in which the court is bound to take cognizance on all the suits of civil nature. It is a concept of plenary jurisdiction which means that it shall be presumed that the court has the jurisdiction to try the suit. The burden shall now be upon the accused to prove that the court does not have the jurisdiction. (Abdul Gaffur v. State of Uttarakhand)

2. Suit of civil nature- the words used in section 9 are suit of civil nature and not civil suit. Suit of civil nature is not a purely civil suit. In pure civil suit there is only one issue or there are more than one issue but all the issues are related to the civil legal rights of the individual. Whereas in suit of civil nature there are more than one issues but the difference is that there is one issue relating to the civil legal right of the person that is main issue. Also there are certain other subordinate issues which are related to the social or religious rights of the individual. Section 9 talks about the suit of civil nature and not pure civil suits. (Unichem Laboratories v. Rani Devi)

3. Express bar- the court is restricted to take cognizance of the suit of civil nature unless their jurisdiction is expressly barred. Here expressly barred means that the jurisdiction of the civil court is restricted under the CPC itself in the forms of various bars. For example res judicata, res subjudice, Order II Rule, Order XXVIII Rule 1 etc.

4. Implied bars- apart from the express bars there are certain other bars which are not expressly given under CPC but they are given in the other statutes and restrict the jurisdiction of the civil courts. In those statutes the specific tribunals have been constituted to deal with the specific subject matters and not the civil courts. For example rent tribunal under the rent control act, income tax tribunals, company law tribunals etc.

In the case of Dulhabhai v. State of Madhya Pradesh it was held that when the specific tribunal is not exercising the jurisdiction then the civil court shall have the jurisdiction to try the case. Also if the specific tribunal is not following the principles of natural justice then also the civil court shall have the jurisdiction.

18 Oct 2023
Question:-Examine the validity of the following agreement:
A enters into an agreement with B that he will not carry on the business of medicine within his entire area mentioned. Is the agreement enforceable against B?
The main question to be determined in this problem is that whether the agreement between A and B amounts to a reasonable restriction upon the trade and profession or not.
The law point on this is under section 27 of the Indian Contract act. As per section 27 of the Indian contract act the agreements which are restricting the trade and profession are void agreements. These are those agreements which violate the right to trade and practicing profession of an individual which is a constitutional right under Article 300A of the Constitution of India.
But at the same time section 27 has certain exceptions also. The proviso to section 27 states that if the restraint in the agreement upon the trade is reasonable i.e the person is restricted to practice trade or profession in a particular area limit or a reasonable area limits then such an agreement shall not be deemed to be in restraint of trade and profession.
Applying the above law to the present fact it can be considered that the restraint in the agreement between A and B is not a reasonable restraint as per the proviso to section 27 as A is restraining B to carry on the business of medicine within the entire area and not within a limited area.
This kind of restriction results in an unreasonable restriction on the trade and profession. Hence the agreement between A and B shall be a void agreement as per section 27 being in restrain of the trade and profession.
17 Oct 2023
Question:-Agreement is the gist of criminal conspiracy. Explain.
Criminal conspiracy being an inchote offence and the policy being to prevent the larger crimes by punishing the accused at the very inception it does not require that the agreed act must be actually committed.
The actus reus for the offence of criminal conspiracy is the very agreement. The “such an agreement is designated as criminal conspiracy”. Here the very agreement has been declared as criminal conspiracy and it is not required that the desired object must be attained.
Being an inchoate offence it is not necessary that the act for which the agreement is entered into must be committed. It is sufficient if there is an agreement between the persons to commit an illegal act or a legal act by illegal means thhen it would be suffiecient to make those persons liable for the offence of criminal conspiracy.
The illegal act as per section 43 may be in three forms I.e which is an offence, wheich is prohibited by law or which gives ground for civil action. Therefore the offence of conspiracy can be committed to commit any of the three forms of illegal act.

Therefore there are three types of conspiracies-
(a) to commit an offence
(b) to commit an act prohibited by law
(c ) to commit an act which gives ground for civil action.

conspiracy to commit any offence mere agreement is sufficient whereas for conspiracy to do an act which is either prohibited by law or gives ground for civil action not only agreement but the act in pursuance of such agreement is required.
Therefore the actus reus for section 120A depends upon the nature of conspiracy.
16 Oct 2023
Question:-‘A’ firm dealing with readymade garments advertised about clearance sale of their stock. ‘Z’ a customer visits shop, picks up a trouser from the lot with a price tag of Rs. 500, takes it to Salesman and asks him to pack it and prepare Bill. Salesman discovers that trousers in question should have been in the lot of articles with a price tag of 700 and refuses to sell the trouser telling that it was put in a lot of articles with price tag 500. Can Z customer compel A firm to sell the trouser at 500. Whether contract has been concluded?
The law to be used in the present problem lies in the concept of invitation to proposal.
An invitation to proposal is different from the proposal. In proposal the object is to obtain the acceptance. In invitation to proposal there is just an intention to obtain the proposal. A person who is making the invitation to proposal just gives the information about the proposal and the objective is to obtain the proposal in return. It is mere communication of the information in order to get the proposal. Unlike proposal, invitation to proposal is not defined under the Indian Contract Act.
Invitation to proposal is not any one of the stage of the contract. The formation of contract starts from the proposal obtained after the invitation to proposal.
In the case of Pharmaceuticals Society of Great Britain v. Boot cash chemist (1953) it was held that in cases when the goods are displayed on the shelves in a shop and the customer picks up a good and goes to the cash counter then the shopkeeper can refuse to give the goods. This is because the act of picking up the goods and going to the cash counter amounts to an offer and the cashier is then free to accept or reject the offer of the customer. Displaying the goods on the shelves amounts to invitation to offer and when after picking up the article the cashier denies then it does not amount to violation of a concluded contract.
Applying the above law to the present facts it may be concluded that when A customer went to the cashier Z to purchase the garment then it amounts to an offer. Now Z is free to accept or to reject the offer made by A. This is because the displaying of the garments in the store amounts to invitation to proposal. Therefore when Z refused to sell the garment then it does not amount to breach of a concluded contract.
14 Oct 2023
Question:-(a) A is proclaimed as an offender by the State Government. He is arrested by a police officer without a warrant. A challenges his arrest in the High Court by filing a write of Habeas Corpus’ under Article 226 of the Constitution of India, on the ground that his arrest is illegal as he has been arrested without a warrant. Is his arrest illegal. Discuss.

(b) A, an accused is arrested by a police officer without a warrant. After arrest, A is detained in the custody of police for 14 hours without the permission or order of a Magistrate. Is the detention of A for 14 hours without the order of the Magistrate, illegal? Give the relevant provision, if any, under the CrPC.
(a) As per section 41 CrPC the police officer can arrest any person without the warrant to arrest obtained from the Magistrate. But as per the provisions of this section that person must be a proclaimed offendor as per section 82 of the CrPC or has been declared as a proclaimed offendor by the state government. In the present facts A has been declared as a proclaimed offendor by the state government. Therefore the police officer as per section 41 has the right to arrest his without the warrant. Hence the writ petition filed by A is not valid as his arrest is not illegal being without the warrant.

(b) As per section 57 of the Criminal Procedure Code when any police officer arrests any person without the warrant then he may detain such person in custody for the reasonable time period only. Reasonable time means the time required for the initial interrogation of the arrested person. And such reasonable period must in no case be more than 24 hours. Within this period of 24 hours the arrested person must be produced before the Magistrate. In the present facts A is arrested without warrant and is detained for 14 hours. So this period of 14 hours is within the purview of section 57 I.e. within 24 hours. Therefore the arrest and detention is not illegal if after 14 hours of arrest he is produced before the Magistrate as per sction 57 CrPC.
12 Oct 2023
Question:-Explain the dictum “Actus Non-Facit Reum Nisi Mens Sit Rea”. What are the exceptions to this principle.
A. As per the cardinal rule of criminal jurisprudence an act of any person shall amount to offence under the Indian Penal Code when there is an act combined with the state of mind. Actus non facit reum nisi men sit rea is the basic latin maxim around which the penal law revolves. The literal meaning of this is that to amount to an offence there must be actus reus and mens rea both coexisting. Actus reus means the act which is wrongful or punishable. Mens rea is the state of mind of a particular person who has committed such act. In order to amount to an offence there must be a wrongful act and there must also be the required mens rea along with it. But at the same time there are certain exceptions to this general rule. There are certain situations in which the act is punishable without the mens rea. There are certain offences which are punishable irrespective of the fact that they are committed without mens rea or guilty mind. This is known as the principle of strict liability. The strict liability means that even without mens rea the offence will be punishable. These are those offences which are affecting the society more as compared to the other offences and that is why the law is strict for them. These are those offences which have a grave impact on the society and in order to prevent the accused from escaping the liabilty on the basis of absence of mens rea. The offences which belong to the principle of strict liability like kidnapping punishable under section 363 IPC, public nuisance punishable under section 268 IPC and the socio economic offences which are made punishable under various other statutes. Kidnapping is an example of strict liability because kidnapping is an offence against the guardianship or the offence which may lead to exploitation of the kidnapped child and hence the accused cannot be allowed to escape the liability on the basis of absence of mens rea. Public nuisance is an offence of strict liability because it affects the health and interest of public at large. Also there are various offences which are mentioned in the various statutes and affects the socio economic condition of the nation such offences are also the offences of strict liability. In the case of State of Maharashtra v. M.H George it was held that the offence under FERA affects the socio economic condition of the nation and hence there is no requirement of proving the mend rea in such case as it is a principle of strict liability.
11 Oct 2023
Question:-Oral evidence cannot be substituted for the written evidence of any contract, which the parties have put into writing. Discuss and illustrate.
A. The given phrase in the question is a manifestation of the rule of best evidence. The rule of best evidence means that it is the duty of the parties to give the best possible evidences in the case. Also it is the duty of the court to extract the best possible evidence from the parties when the court is not satisfies with the evidences given by the parties. This is one of the rule of best evidence that when any contract has been entered into in writing then the contents of such document has to be proved by documentary evidence only and oral evidence of it cannot be given. As per section 59 of the Indian Evidence Act it has been stated that oral evidence can be given for proving any fact except the contents of the document. For proving the terma of the document only documentary evidence can be given. The manifestation of this rule of best evidence can be clearly seen in section 91 and 92. As per section 91 of the Act when the terms of the contract, grant or other disposition are reduced into writing then to prove the terms of such document only documentary evidence can be given and oral evidence shall not be admissible. Also there may be c ertain contract grants or other disposition which are reduced into writing or not but they are required by law to be reduced into writing then to prove such transaction only documentary evidence can be given. These are those transaction for which it is mandatrory under law that they must be in writing for example rent agreement for more than 11 months, lease deed for an year or more, sale deed for a value above 100 rupees etc. So for proving the terms of these contracts only the documentary evidence can be given and oral evidence shall not be admissible. Also section 92 of the act is an extension of the rule of best evidence which is given under section 91 of the act. As per section 92 when the terms of any contract, grant or other disposition has been reduced into writing or are required by law to be in writing then for modifying, altering, adding or substracting any such term of any such transaction only documentary evidence can be given and oral evidence shall not be admissible. But in section 92 only six exceptional situations have been given in which it shall be allowed to give the oral evidence of the transactions. Hence, oral evidence cannot be given to prove the contents of the transactions which are duly documented and in such cases oral evidence shall not be admissible.