MCQ 26 June 2024

Daily MCQs for Judiciary Prelims Exams - (26 June 2024)



Question/ Answer
Question1:- The Essential of a valid contract are:
  • (a) Meeting of Mind
  • (b) Meeting of Parties
  • (c) Meeting to discuss consideration
  • (d) Meeting to discuss proposal and acceptance
Answer is A is correct. Consensus ad-idem means meeting of minds. It means that parties to the contract should accept the terms of the contract in the “same sense”. Therefore option (a) is the correct answer.
Question2:- Which one of the following is the correct meaning of An agreement not enforceable by law ?
  • (a) Unlawful contract
  • (b) Void contract
  • (c) Viodable agreement
  • (d) Void agreement
Answer is D is correct. According to sec. 2 (g) an agreement not enforceable by law is to be a void. Thus a void agreement is void ab initio, i.e., no agreement at all from its very inception. Therefore option (d) is the correct answer.
Question3:- As per section 2 goods does not include-
  • (a) Actionable claims
  • (b) Money
  • (c) Both a and b
  • (d) None of the above.
Answer is C is correct. As per section 2(7) “goods” means every kind of moveable property other than actionable claims and money; and includes stock and shares, growing crops, grass, and things attached to or forming part of the land which are agreed to be severed before sale or under the contract of sale. Therefore option (c) is the correct answer.
Question4:- When a buyer can sue the seller:
  • (a) He may ask for the specific performance, if this being the part of the contract.
  • (b) He may initiate for the breach of the warranty.
  • (c) He may initiate suit for delivery of the goods, if not delivered.
  • (d) All of the above.
Answer is D is correct. All the above remedies are available to the buyer against the seller. Therefore option (d) is the correct answer.
Question5:- Which doctrine is dealt under Section 25 of the Indian Partnership Act
  • (a) Doctrine of Implied Authority
  • (b) Doctrine of Feeding the grant by estoppel
  • (c) Doctrine of Waiver
  • (d) Doctrine of Separation of power
Answer is A is correct. Section 25 states that every partner is liable for the acts of the firm and Doctrine of Implied Authority is dealt under this provision wherein every partner is liable for the acts of another. Therefore option (a) is the correct answer.
Question6:- Within how much time, a minor has to decide whether he wants to remain in the firm or leave it
  • (a) Within 1 year from attaining majority
  • (b) Within 3 months from attaining majority
  • (c) Within 9 months from attaining majority
  • (d) Within 6 months from attaining majority
Answer is D is correct. As per Section 30 on attaining majority a minor has to decide within six months whether he shall remain in the firm or leave it. Six months are counted from the date of his majority or from the date when he first comes to know that he has been admitted into the benefits of partnership. Therefore option (d) is the correct answer.
Question7:- Executive magistrate is appointed by
  • (a) High Court under Section 20(2)
  • (b) State Government under Section 20(1)
  • (c) High Court under Section 20(1)
  • (d) State Government under Section 20(2)
Answer is B is correct. As per Section 20(1) of the Code, in every district and in every metropolitan area, the State Government may appoint as many persons as it thinks fit to be Executive Magistrates and shall appoint one of them to be the District Magistrate. Therefore option (b) is the correct answer.

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